737 Technical Exam
Question 1 |
During descent, the pressurization descent mode is activated when:
Aircraft descends 0.50 psi below the selected LAND ALT
| |
Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected LAND ALT
| |
Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT
| |
Aircraft descends 0.50 psi below the selected FLT ALT
|
Question 2 |
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. With one radio altimeter inoperative:
the autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and GS capture | |
the autopilot will continue to command the aircraft down to minimums | |
nothing out of the ordinary will occur | |
the autopilot will disconnect as soon as the failure is detected |
Question 3 |
Blue illumination of APU GEN OFF BUS means:
APU is running but not powering transfer busses | |
APU is running | |
APU is not running | |
APU is running and powering transfer busses |
Question 4 |
Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden:
Only when the yaw damper switch is off
| |
By rudder pedals inputs but not trim inputs
| |
By trim inputs but not rudder pedals inputs
| |
By either trim or rudder pedals inputs
|
Question 5 |
If the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed for pushback or towing:
System B HYDRAULIC PUMPS must be switched off | |
System B HYDRAULIC PUMPS must be switched on | |
System A HYDRAULIC PUMPS must be switched off | |
System A HYDRAULIC ELEC PUMP may be switched on |
Question 6 |
Prior to returning to the oil tank engine oil passes through:
the scavenge filter and IDG fuel-cooled oil cooler | |
main engine oil cooler and IDG fuel-cooled oil cooler | |
first stage fuel pump and main engine oil cooler | |
the scavenge filter and main engine oil cooler |
Question 7 |
Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF lights indicates:
Hot battery bus unpowered
| |
DC bus 1 unpowered
| |
DC bus 2 unpowered
| |
AC standby bus unpowered
|
Question 8 |
The FMC advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicates:
Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than specified
| |
Clear air turbulence has been detected in the intermediate flight path
| |
The flight deck crews dinner is being prepared in the galley
| |
The aircraft is in a partial or full stall
|
Question 9 |
Pushing the ATTEND call switch:
sounds a two-tone chime in the cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights | |
sounds a single chime in the cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights | |
sounds a two-tone chime in the cabin and illuminates the FWD pink master call light | |
sounds a single chime in the cabin and illuminates the FWD pink master call light |
Question 10 |
Refer to the RF indication to the right of the hydraulic system quantity indication. This indication is displayed:
Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall
| |
At all times
| |
Only when hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B and the aircraft is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in
| |
Automatically when the hydraulic quantity is below 88% in either system A or B
|
Question 11 |
Landing auto brake setting may be selected after touchdown:
Auto break action will occur only after both thrust levers are retarded to idle
| |
Prior to decelerating through 30 knots groundspeed
| |
However, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and auto break application will not occur
| |
After decelerating through 30 knots groundspeed
|
Question 12 |
The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units, the correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is:
LE slats EXT Lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated | |
All amber TRANSIT lights illuminated | |
All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated | |
All LE devices EXT lights illuminated |
Question 13 |
On the ground, for primary ATC communication:
Always use no. 1 VHF radio
| |
No. 1 VHF for outbound and no. 2 VHF for inbound flights
| |
Always use the no.2 VHF radio
| |
Monitor the VHF radio connected to the lower antenna
|
Question 14 |
Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kg of fuel in the No 1 main tank and 3060 kg of fuel in the No 2 main tank. You will see:
The fuel quantity arc and digits on main tank No 2 turn amber
| |
An amber IMBAL indication below main tank No 1 accompanied by a Master Caution Light and system annunciation for fuel
| |
An amber IMBAL indication below main tank No 1, fuel quantity arc and digits on tank with lower quantity also turns amber
| |
An amber LOW indication below main tank No 1 accompanied by a Master Caution Light and system annunciation for fuel
|
Question 15 |
The FMC Alerting Message INSUFFICIENT FUEL means:
You will have less than 900kg (2000lbs) of fuel at the destination
| |
You will not reach your destination before running out of fuel
| |
The APU is running out of fuel
| |
It is necessary to increase the thrust setting
|
Question 16 |
An amber IAS DISAGREE alert in the bottom of the speed tape indicates:
The Captains and First Officers airspeeds disagree by more than 5 KTS for more than 5 seconds
| |
The selected V REF is not correct for actual airplane gross weight
| |
The selected V REF is not correct for actual airplane configuration
| |
There is a difference of more than 10 KTS between the MCP and FMC speeds
|
Question 17 |
For landing, what is maximum fuel imbalance between No 1 and No 2 main tanks?
726 kgs | |
453 Kgs
| |
553 Kgs
| |
653 Kgs
|
Question 18 |
The amber LOW PRESSURE Light for System B Electric Hydraulic Pump illuminates. What are the other indications?
MASTER CAUTION, HYD annunciator and System B Flight Control LOW PRESSURE Lights illuminate | |
System B hydraulic pressure drops to 1000 psi | |
MASTER CAUTION and HYD annunciator lights illuminate | |
System B brake pressure drops to 1000 psi |
Question 19 |
On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT, the switched hot battery bus is:
Powered by TR 3 | |
Powered by the Battery | |
Not powered | |
Powered by the Hot Battery Bus |
Question 20 |
What is the maximum authorised thrust reduction below any certified rating?
20%
| |
25%
| |
10%
| |
35%
|
Question 21 |
Both, ON and ALTN visible on EEC, indicate EEC has automatically changed to soft alternate mode, and remains in soft mode until:
Thrust lever retarded to idle or manually selecting ALTN with EEC switch on AFT overhead panel | |
Thrust levers are both advanced to full throttle | |
The N2 of any engine drops below 57% | |
The N1 of any engine drops below 57% |
Question 22 |
What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN Light when the crossfeed selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
Illuminated amber
| |
Illuminated bright blue
| |
Extinguished | |
Illuminated dim blue
|
Question 23 |
The APU may be used as a pneumatic source up to:
25,000 feet | |
17,000 feet
| |
41,000 feet
| |
10,000 feet
|
Question 24 |
The SMYD computers receive inputs from:
Anti-ice controls only
| |
FMC, Thrust reverser
| |
ADIRUs only
| |
Anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs
|
Question 25 |
Following an unpressurised takeoff, when is the first engine Bleed Switch positioned to ON?
After the gear is up and obstacle clearance has been achieved
| |
Prior to 400 feet above the ground
| |
At not less than 400 feet, and prior to 2000 feet above field elevation
| |
After passing through 2000 feet above the ground
|
Question 26 |
The supplemental and temporary data bases has storage capacity for:
20 navaids and 2 airports
| |
unlimited navaids and 6 airports
| |
unlimited airports and 40 navaids
| |
40 navaids and 6 airports
|
Question 27 |
In flight, the Predictive Windshear Warning:
will activate if windshear is detected up to 7nm ahead of the aircraft | |
is inhibited below 1500ft | |
is operated by the EGPWS | |
will activate for windshear up to 1.5nm ahead of the aircraft |
Question 28 |
Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:
Centre tank
| |
No 2 main tank
| |
Left side of the fuel manifold
| |
Aux. Tank
|
Question 29 |
Refer to the thermal anti-ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI is shown above each N1 indicator:
If amber, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON
| |
If green, the cowl anti-ice switch valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON
| |
If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is closed and the related engine anti-ice switch is OFF
| |
If amber, the cowl anti-ice valve is closed and the related anti-ice switch is OFF
|
Question 30 |
Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT switch ON?
L2, L3, L4, L5 | |
L1 only | |
L1, L2, L3 | |
L2, L4, L5 |
Question 31 |
APU cooling air:
Enters through the air inlet door
| |
Is supplied by the air conditioning packs
| |
Enters through the ram air system
| |
Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet
|
Question 32 |
The right IRS is electrically powered from:
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 and in an emergency from battery bus
| |
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 and in an emergency from switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes
| |
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 and in an emergency from hot battery bus
| |
Normally AC Transfer Bus 1 and in an emergency from switched hot battery bus
|
Question 33 |
Which systems use engine bleed air for operation?
APU, engine starting, Air con/Press, Hydraulic tanks
| |
Air con/press, Wing Anti-ice, Fuel tanks
| |
Wing Anti-ice, engine starting, water tank
| |
Engine starting, Air con/Press, Wing and Engine anti-ice, Hydraulic and water tanks pressurization
|
Question 34 |
Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport on the DEP/APR page:
Only origin airport is available until passing 120 NM from origin airport
| |
Only origin airport is available until passing 60 NM from origin airport
| |
Both origin and destination airport are available
| |
Only destination airport is available
|
Question 35 |
Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning system?
SPEED BRAKE lever in the DOWN position
| |
Spoilers partially extended
| |
Leading edge slats in the extend position and trailing edge flaps at flaps 5
| |
Leading edge slat in the full extend position and trailing edge at flaps 15
|
Question 36 |
When the manual gear extension access door is open:
Normal landing gear extension is not possible
| |
The landing gear may be retracted by moving the landing gear lever to the UP position only if hydraulic system A pressure is available
| |
Manual landing gear extension may be accomplished with the landing gear handle in the UP position
| |
Landing gear uplocks are released
|
Question 37 |
If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine:
15 seconds after the start valve opens during ground starts
| |
10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to idle
| |
no automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start
| |
15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts
|
Question 38 |
The number of flight spoilers located onn each wing are:
6 | |
3 | |
4 | |
2 |
Question 39 |
What happens with the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation:
IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows dashes
| |
IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows 100 kts
| |
IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows slashes
| |
IAS/MACH displays opens up and show FMC target speed
|
Question 40 |
With normal power source on the buses, placing the battery switch to OFF will remove power from:
The battery bus
| |
The standby buses
| |
The battery bus, switched hot battery bus and standby buses
| |
The battery bus and switched hot battery bus
|
Question 40 Explanation:
See BATTERY (BAT) SWITCH section (FCOM 2 6.10.3)
Question 41 |
The Recirculation Fan:
Reduces air conditioning pack load
| |
Is driven by a DC motor
| |
Increases airflow at greater cabin differential pressure
| |
Provides overheat detection downstream of the packs
|
Question 42 |
The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT light:
Indicates LE slats are fully extended
| |
Provides TE flaps asymmetry protection
| |
Indicates all LE devices are fully extended
| |
Is inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight
|
Question 43 |
Dual angle-airflow sensors (alpha vanes) provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning system, autothrottle, autopilot and autoslats are anti-iced:
Whenever wing anti-ice is being used | |
By switching on the LEFT and RIGHT FWD window heat switch | |
By switching on the PROBE HEAT switches | |
Whenever the alternate static ports are heated |
Question 44 |
(RF) Indication is displayed to the right of the hydraulic system quantity:
Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall
| |
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B
| |
At all times
| |
When hydraulic quantity is less than 88% in either system A or B
|
Question 45 |
Which statement is true?
Hydraulic System B pressure is bypassed with the lockout pin installed in the steering depressurisation valve
| |
Rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends
| |
Rudder pedal steering overrides the steering wheel inputs
| |
Rudder pedal steering allow 37 degrees of steering in either direction
|
Question 46 |
In degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
Capt. VHF 1, F.O. VHF 2, Observer VHF 2
| |
All stations will use VHF 1
| |
Capt. VHF 1, F.O. VHF 2, Observer VHF 1
| |
Capt. VHF 2, F.O. VHF 1, Observer VHF 2
|
Question 47 |
The scratch pad message VERIFY GW AND FUEL appears:
When gross weight is out of limit
| |
When fuel data is invalid causing V NAV to disengage
| |
When fuel data is invalid and fuel has to be entered manually
| |
You will not reach your destination before running out of fuel
|
Question 48 |
The ND Wind direction/speed and wind arrow is:
Blanked if wind speed becomes less than 6 knots
| |
Displayed in only in ND MAP mode
| |
Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots
| |
Displayed only in ILS mode
|
Question 49 |
In AUTO, the FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs:
illuminate when descending through 15,000ft | |
illuminate when descending through 10,000ft | |
illuminate when flap or gear are extended | |
illuminate when flap is selected higher than 1 degree |
Question 50 |
The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to:
Automatically use hydraulic system B for landing gear retraction if hydraulic system A engine driven pump fails and the landing gear lever is positioned up
| |
Automatically use hydraulic system B for gear retraction if No 1 engine is lost and the landing gear lever is positioned up
| |
Allow the use of nose wheel steering in the event of hydraulic system A fails
| |
Allow landing gear retraction if hydraulic system B is lost during takeoff
|
Question 51 |
Elevator feel system is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of:
Only System A hydraulic pressure
| |
Airspeed and stabiliser position
| |
Elevator balance tabs position
| |
Altitude and elevator position
|
Question 52 |
Minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature is:
3 degrees above the fuel freezing point or -43 degrees, whichever is higher | |
-43 degrees | |
3 degrees above the fuel freezing point or -43 degrees, whichever is lower | |
3 degrees above the fuel freezing point |
Question 53 |
During cruise the FMC Alerting Message VERIFY POSITION indicates:
The Captain has left the cockpit for an excessive period of time
| |
Position information is contradictory
| |
You are routing to the wrong airfield
| |
The aircraft is excessively off the flight planned course
|
Question 54 |
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
CWS P | |
V NAV | |
MCP SPD | |
V/S |
Question 55 |
The LOCKOUT PIN is installed in the steering depressurisation valve. What does this do?
It locks the nose wheel in center position
| |
Allows aircraft pushback or towing without depressurising the hydraulic systems
| |
Bypasses the standby hydraulic system
| |
It locks the pedals in neutral position
|
Question 56 |
The flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provides:
Protection for LE devices and TE flaps if two or more LE flaps or LE slats moves from commanded position
| |
Skew detection for LE flaps
| |
Slat and skew protection during auto-slat operation
| |
LE skew detection for slats 1 through 8
|
Question 57 |
With the STANDBY POWER switch in the AUTO position, loss of both engine driven generators and APU generator will result in that AC standby bus is powered by battery through static inverter and DC standby bus is powered by battery:
In flight only | |
Either in flight or on the ground | |
On the ground only | |
Will not occur |
Question 58 |
What is the primary source of conditioned air from the cockpit?
Both packs
| |
The left pack
| |
Ground air
| |
The right pack
|
Question 59 |
The amber LOW PRESSURE Light for the No 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates. What should you do?
Select STBY RUD with FLT CONTROL switch A
| |
Position the pump switch to OFF
| |
Start the Elec pump
| |
Monitor System A and B pressures
|
Question 60 |
When operating on standby power:
Only the captains pitot probe is heated and the CAPT PITOT amber light will not illuminate for a failure
| |
Only the captains pitot probe is heated and the CAPT PITOT amber light will illuminate in case of failure
| |
Only the F/Os pitot probe is heated
| |
Both captains and F/Os primary pitot are heated
|
Question 61 |
The air/ground system receives logic signals from:
Six sensors, two on each landing gear
| |
A teleflex cable on the right main landing gear
| |
The cabin pressure controllers
| |
The altimeter
|
Question 62 |
During cruise you note both center tank fuel pumps have failed as indicated by the illumination of both center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights. You still have 320 kg of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. You will see:
A pump LOW PRESSURE indication on the CDS
| |
A LOW indication on the CDS
| |
A CONFIG indication on the CDS
| |
It will be no indication on CDS
|
Question 63 |
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?
21.4 | |
2.04 | |
24.1 | |
20.4 |
Question 64 |
A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:
The temperature mix valves to drive full cold
| |
The temperature mix valves to drive full hot
| |
An automatic shutdown of the pack
| |
A BLEED TRIP OFF
|
Question 65 |
During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the IRS Mode Selector is moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment | |
Switch directly to NAV from ATT position | |
Switch to OFF position for 1 minute and then to ALIGN | |
Switch to ALIGN position than to NAV |
Question 66 |
Predictive Windshear alerts are triggered from:
Common Display System
| |
Weather Radar System
| |
Aural Warning Module
| |
EGPWS |
Question 67 |
During engine start, the EGT exceeds the starting limit, when does the EEC automatically turns off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine?
In the air only
| |
On the ground only
| |
Never
| |
On the ground and in the air
|
Question 68 |
The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of power for the Autoslat System if:
The Alternate Flaps Position Switch is momentarily held down
| |
Hydraulic System A engine driven pump is inoperative
| |
A loss of Hydraulic System A pressure is sensed
| |
A loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine pump is sensed
|
Question 69 |
The FMC alerting message RESET MCP ALT means:
Aircraft within 2.5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent (TOD) point without selecting lower altitude on the MCP
| |
Aircraft within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Climb (TOC) point without selecting higher altitude on the MCP
| |
Aircraft within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent (TOD) point without selecting lower altitude on the MCP
| |
Aircraft within 15 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent (TOD) point without selecting lower altitude on the MCP
|
Question 70 |
During single pack operation with TRIM AIR selected to OFF:
Cannot provide cooling | |
Does not provide any heating | |
the pack attempts to produce an air temperature matching the coldest temperature selected | |
the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average demands of all three zones |
Question 71 |
With the Multifunction Display Switch (MFD) is SYS in lower DU shows:
Hydraulic pressure and quantity only
| |
Door annunciations
| |
Brake temperature on all fours wheels
| |
Hydraulic pressure and quantity only and flight ctrls surfaces
|
Question 72 |
In what mode will the TCAS automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF?
MAP, CTR MAP, VOR, APP | |
MAP, VOR, APP, CTR APP | |
VOR, APP, CTR APP | |
MAP, CTR VOR, CTR APP |
Question 73 |
The GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when:
The GROUND SERVICE switch is positioned ON
| |
The pneumatic ground cart is disconnected
| |
The AC ground power cart has been disconnected
| |
The GROUND POWER switch is positioned ON
|
Question 74 |
During flight with hydraulic system B inoperative (no fluid in system B):
The standby hydraulic system operates the trailing edge flaps normally
| |
The autoslat system is still functional through the operation of the PTU
| |
Trim is available for the stabiliser and rudder only Aileron trim is inoperative with the autopilots disengaged
| |
The standby hydraulic system operates the leading edge slats and leading edge flaps to fully extended position only
|
Question 74 Explanation:
See POWER TRANSFER UNIT section (FCOM 2 13.20.3) and STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM (FCOM 2 13.20.4)
Question 75 |
During an ILS approach the captain observes his BARO minimum reference altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three seconds, this means:
A windshear has been encountered
| |
The aircraft has descended below captains selected minimum altitude (DA)
| |
The aircraft has descended below 1000 feet
| |
Radio altitude data is unreliable
|
Question 76 |
The hydraulic brake pressure indicator displays accumulator nitrogen pre-charge pressure of 1000 psi and:
Brake pressure from hydraulic system B if it is greater than 1000 psi
| |
Brake pressure from the PTU
| |
Brake pressure from standby hydraulic system
| |
Brake pressure from hydraulic system A if it is greater than 1000 psi
|
Question 77 |
To receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio:
set the filter switch to BOTH | |
press the TEST button on the VHF panel | |
set the filter switch to V | |
set the filter switch to R |
Question 78 |
The EEC provides redline overspeed protection for:
N2 only in both the normal and alternate modes
| |
N1 only in both the normal and alternate modes
| |
N1 and N2 in both the normal and alternate modes
| |
N1 and N2 in the normal mode only
|
Question 79 |
Engine oil pressure is in the yellow band at take off thrust. Which of the following is true
Acceptable, no action is necessary
| |
Do not take off
| |
Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil pressure
| |
Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature
|
Question 80 |
What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP Light to illuminate?
Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band
| |
System B pressure is low
| |
AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF
| |
A fault in the parking brake system
|
Question 81 |
With the loss of hydraulic system B, (system A operating normally):
Standby yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON
| |
Main and standby yaw damper functions are lost
| |
Main yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON
| |
Standby yaw damper functions are available if the FLT CONTROL B switch is placed to STBY RUD and the YAW DAMPER switch is reset to ON
|
Question 82 |
The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the APU powering both transfer buses:
The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails
| |
During climb, after passing 1500 feet AGL generators will automatically come on line
| |
Both AC and DC Standby bus will disconnect after lift-off
| |
Both transfer busses will disconnect automatically after lift-off
|
Question 83 |
The amber OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT Light illuminates. What does this indicate?
The pressurization controller has failed and will automatically shift to STANDBY
| |
The pressurization controller has failed and will automatically shift to MANUAL
| |
The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the flight altitude window
| |
The pressurization controller is unable to maintain pressurization
|
Question 84 |
The Predictive Windshear alerts are available:
When TERR switch on EFIS control panel is pressed
| |
Automatically below 2300 feet RA
| |
Automatically below 1200 feet RA
| |
When WPT switch on EFIS control panel is pressed
|
Question 85 |
In which fuel tanks are bypass valves located?
Both main tanks
| |
None
| |
Center tank
| |
All tanks
|
Question 86 |
With ENGINE START switch in OFF, automatic ignition will occur:
If ENG ANTI-ICE is selected ON
| |
Will never occur
| |
If N1 is between 57% and 50%
| |
If N2 is between 57% and 50%
|
Question 87 |
If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after touchdown:
The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate
| |
The AUTO BRAKE SELECT switch will move to OFF
| |
After 3 seconds in the advanced position the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate
| |
The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate immediately
|
Question 88 |
The RA aural alert "CLIMB-CLIMB NOW" means:
Increase your rate of climb now | |
Start climbing as soon as possible | |
Reversal maneuvour from initial descent RA | |
Reversal maneuvour from initial climb RA |
Question 89 |
In the PACK TRIP OFF non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:
Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack | |
Reduce the workload on the other pack | |
Reduce cabin airflow | |
Reduce the airflow through the air mix valves |
Question 90 |
The APU switch to OFF position has an automatic shutdown delay of:
120 seconds | |
60 seconds | |
135 seconds | |
30 seconds |
Question 91 |
The Auto position of the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) On/Auto switch:
Ensures the CVR is always powered
| |
Powers the CVR until first engine start and then trips the switch to on
| |
Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown
| |
Powers both the CVR and the Flight Data recorder from first engine start
|
Question 92 |
One of the purposes of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:
Establish your position relative to any unknown fix
| |
Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route with a radial or distance from a known fix
| |
Establish a fix relative to arrival airport position
| |
Create new waypoints and using place bearing /place bearing or along track fix methods, monitor flight progress
|
Question 93 |
The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the:
Outboard spoilers
| |
Trailing edge flaps
| |
Landing gear
| |
Autoslats
|
Question 94 |
Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning, you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?
The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost | |
The cabin will stay fully pressurized at the current differential pressure | |
A rapid depressurization | |
The pressurization will remember the departure airport elevation and automatically descent to that level |
Question 95 |
The APU starter cycle may take up to:
135 seconds | |
120 seconds | |
180 seconds | |
60 seconds |
Question 96 |
Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates:
The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch ON
| |
Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON
| |
The battery is being overcharged
| |
The battery bus is not powered
|
Question 97 |
The left IRS is electrically powered from:
Normally AC Transfer Bus 1 in emergency from switched hot battery bus
| |
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 in emergency from hot battery bus
| |
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 in emergency from battery bus
| |
Normally AC Standby bus in emergency from switched hot battery bus
|
Question 98 |
A leak in standby hydraulic system will cause system B fluid indication decrease to approximately:
Zero
| |
64%
| |
Has no effect on system B quantity
| |
72%
|
Question 99 |
In normal operation, what provides the A/T system with N1 limit values?
ADIRUs | |
A/T computer | |
AFDS | |
FMC |
Question 100 |
The alpha vanes provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning system, auto throttle, auto pilot, auto slats and are anti-iced:
Whenever the alternate static ports are heated
| |
By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the PROBE HEAT switches
| |
By LEFT or RIGHT FWD window heat switches
| |
Whenever engine anti-icing is being used
|
Question 101 |
Emergency exit light can be activated from:
Flight deck only
| |
Flight deck and aft and fwd attendant station
| |
Flight deck and fwd cabin attendant station
| |
Flight deck and aft cabin attendant station
|
Question 102 |
Placing the TEST Switch in the FAULT/INOP position tests:
The engine overheat detectors only
| |
The APU overheat detectors only
| |
The fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU
| |
The APU DET INOP Light, FAULT Light and APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE Light
|
Question 103 |
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?
Passenger oxygen system pressure is low
| |
Passenger oxygen system is activated
| |
Oxygen shutoff valve is ON
| |
Passenger oxygen quantity is low
|
Question 104 |
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
Only altitude information
| |
Only attitude information
| |
Only heading information
| |
Only attitude and heading information
|
Question 105 |
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
N1 and ARM
| |
THR HLD only
| |
THR HLD and ARM
| |
GA and ARM
|
Question 106 |
How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the Autopilot Director System (AFDS)?
Three | |
One | |
Four, two for each channel | |
Two |
Question 107 |
The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for both air conditioning packs:
Never | |
On the ground only
| |
In the air only
| |
On the ground or in the air
|
Question 108 |
The EGT display, both box and dial, turn red and the EEC automatically turns off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine if:
The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or in flight starts | |
The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts | |
An impending hot start is detected during ground starts | |
An impending hot start is detected during ground starts or in flight starts |
Question 109 |
If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:
The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate
| |
There is no light associated with this malfunction
| |
The FAULT light illuminates
| |
The MAINT light illuminates
|
Question 110 |
The right primary pack control fails. The right pack:
is controlled by the left pack standby control | |
cannot be controlled | |
is controlled by the right pack standby control | |
is controlled by the left pack primary control |
Question 111 |
The AUTOSLAT system:
Uses Hydraulic System A fluid
| |
Uses Standby Hydraulic system fluid
| |
Uses Hydraulic System A pressure
| |
Is normally powered by Hydraulic System B
|
Question 112 |
Number 1 DRIVE light illuminates amber. This is directly caused by:
IDG failure | |
engine shutdown | |
low oil pressure in the IDG | |
IDG auto disconnect due to high oil temperature |
Question 113 |
The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. This means:
The First Officers pitch display is more than 3 degrees in error
| |
The Captains and First Officers pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more
| |
Glide slope is not being tracked
| |
The autopilot has defaulted to CWS pitch
|
Question 114 |
With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the Displays Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2 position:
ADIRU inputs for both the L and R ADIRU are being received from the First Officers pitot probe | |
DEU 2 controls all six display units | |
The First Officers EFIS control panel is supplying identical inputs to the Captains and First Captains displays | |
Both pilots displays are using the No 2 DEU |
Question 115 |
What is the wingtip height of blended wing aircraft?
6.4m | |
6.04m | |
4.06m | |
4.6m |
Question 116 |
On the ground the TR UNIT amber light illuminates if:
Only if TR 2 and TR 3 have failed
| |
TR 3 has failed
| |
Any TR has failed
| |
TR 1 has failed
|
Question 117 |
Refer to the Cabin/Flight Altitude placard. At a cruise altitude FL290, the cabin altitude should read:
A pressure differential of 50 psi
| |
Cannot be determined from this placard
| |
Approximately 6000 feet
| |
Slightly less than FL220
|
Question 118 |
Select the correct statement:
The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest
| |
The secondary flight controls are powered by hydraulic system B, with backup from the A hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest
| |
The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B are lost
| |
The secondary flight controls are powered by hydraulic system A, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest
|
Question 119 |
Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:
Provide positive uplock during main gear retraction
| |
Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear wheels during retraction
| |
Allows the landing gear transfer unit to use hydraulic system B pressure to raise the gear if hydraulic system A fails
| |
Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well
|
Question 120 |
During battery start, when does the EEC start to operate?
When the start switch is positioned to GND | |
15% N2 | |
When the fuel cutoff lever is positioned to IDLE | |
25% N1 |
Question 121 |
With TCAS, proximate traffic is:
Displayed as an amber square | |
Within 12 miles horizontally and 1200ft vertically | |
Within 1.5 nm | |
Within 6 miles horizontally and 1200ft vertically |
Question 122 |
During taxiing out for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light illuminates. What should you do?
Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF and then reselect RTO. If the DISARM re-illuminates, use manual brakes
| |
Position ANTISKID Switch to OFF
| |
Nothing, this is normal
| |
Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not attempt to takeoff if light remains illuminated
|
Question 123 |
When does the amber DUAL BLEED Light illuminate
When the APU bleed valve is open and the No 2 engine bleed switch is on and the isolation valve is closed
| |
When the APU bleed valve is open and the No 1 engine bleed switch is off
| |
When the APU bleed valve is open
| |
When the APU bleed valve is open and the No 1 engine bleed switch is on
|
Question 124 |
Once activated, the APU DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until:
APU shutdown
| |
The completion of the APU start cycle
| |
An AC fuel pump pressurises the manifold
| |
Once the APU is at governed speed, ready to accept a load
|
Question 125 |
A leak in the No. 2 engine driven hydraulic pump or associated lines can result in a total loss of hydraulic system B pressure:
only if Standby hydraulic pump is on
| |
yes, if Elec pump is on
| |
yes, but PTU operation is still available
| |
no |
Question 126 |
To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on page?
PROG | |
PERF | |
CRZ | |
CLB |
Question 127 |
How many fire extinguishing bottles are there totally for engine and APU fires?
5 | |
2 | |
3 | |
4 |
Question 128 |
The FMC Advisor Message DRAG REQUIRED indicates the aircraft is:
Within 15 knots of Vmo/Vmmo
| |
5 knots or less above the FMC target speed
| |
10 knots or more below the FMC target speed
| |
10 knots or more above the FMC target speed or within 5 knots of Vmo/Vmmo
|
Question 129 |
During the ILS approach on the radio altimeter remaining perimeter and pointer turns amber and flashes for 3 seconds. This means:
The airplane has descended below 1,000 ft radio
| |
The airplane has descended below the selected radio altitude
| |
There is difference of more than 10 feet between the captains and first officers radio altimeters
| |
Radio altitude data is unreliable
|
Question 130 |
During normal operations, hydraulic quantity indications vary when:
It will never vary
| |
Raising or lowering the landing gear or leading edge devices
| |
Nose wheel is active
| |
Turning the steering wheel
|
Question 131 |
Illumination of the APU DET INOP Light will cause following lights to illuminate:
No lights
| |
Only OVHT/DET
| |
Only MASTER CAUTION
| |
Both MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET
|
Question 132 |
Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected during a dual channel A/P approach?
VOR/LOC | |
APP | |
VNAV | |
LNAV |
Question 133 |
Pushing VHF TEST swtich on the radio tuning panel:
Will test all VHF units installed | |
Performs the self-test function of the respective VHF radio | |
Will result in the 'VHF TEST COMPLETE' aural notification | |
Improves reception of weak signals |
Question 134 |
Which bus supplies electrical power to the auxiliary battery charger:
Transfer bus 2
| |
AC ground service bus 2
| |
Transfer bus 1
| |
AC ground service bus 1
|
Question 135 |
In addition to hydraulic system A and B, the rudder can also be powered by the standby hydraulic system through the:
System B Standby Rudder PCU
| |
Standby Rudder PCU
| |
System A standby Rudder PCU
| |
Main rudder PCU
|
Question 136 |
During AUTO LAND at which radio altitude should the flare mode be engaged?
150 ft | |
50 ft | |
200 ft | |
300 ft |
Question 137 |
If during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release the system annunciator, the IRS light comes ON. The GPS light is illuminated on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL, and extinguishes when Master Caution is reset. (not A/C YE003):
A single GPS sensor unit has failed | |
This is normal for this phase of flight | |
Both GPS sensor unit has failed | |
Both GPS sensor units and IRS No 1 has failed |
Question 138 |
The number of ground spoilers on each wing are:
0 | |
3 | |
1 | |
2 |
Question 139 |
A WING BODY OVERHEAT light indicates:
The temperature mix valves have driven to full hot
| |
A leak in the bleed air system
| |
An automatic shutdown of the pack
| |
A BLEED TRIP OFF
|
Question 140 |
The Autoslat system:
Is normally powered by Transfer Bus No 2
| |
Provides slat development above Vmo/Mmo if necessary
| |
Drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the aircraft approached a stall
| |
Is normally powered by Hydraulic System A
|
Question 141 |
Minimum fuel for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps is:
760 kgs in the related main tank | |
726 kgs in the related main tank | |
760 kgs in any tank | |
No restriction |
Question 142 |
An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:
Too high pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open
| |
Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open
| |
Too low temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve has closed
| |
Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve has closed
|
Question 143 |
A valid FMC PERF INIT page Scratch Pad entry for actual FUEL is:
Actual fuel is entered manually before every flight
| |
Actual fuel is entered manually before the first flight in the morning
| |
Actual fuel is entered manually before last flight at nightstop for next day
| |
Actual fuel is displayed automatically and cannot be entered manually
|
Question 144 |
The ELEC light will illuminate in flight if:
A fault exists in the DC or standby system
| |
A fault exists in the AC or standby power system
| |
The ELEC light only operates on the ground
| |
A fault exists in the AC, DC or the standby system
|
Question 145 |
If during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release the system annunciator, the IRS light comes ON. The GPS light is illuminated on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL, and extinguishes when Master Caution is reset.
A single GPS sensor unit has failed
| |
This is normal for this phase of flight
| |
Both GPS sensor unit has failed
| |
Both GPS sensor units and IRS No 1 has failed
|
Question 146 |
The flight crew oxygen system uses auto pressure breathing masks / regulators with pressure breathing starting at:
37,000 feet | |
10,000 feet | |
27,000 feet | |
15,000 feet |
Question 147 |
When are the NO SMOKING signs illuminated?
The NO SMOKING signs are always illuminated | |
When the landing gear is up | |
When the flaps are up and above 1000 RA | |
When the landing gear and flaps are up |
Question 148 |
Engine Fuel Flow is measured:
before the fuel filter | |
after passing through spar fuel shutoff valve | |
before the first stage fuel pump | |
after passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve |
Question 149 |
While flying an ILS approach below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To cancel the alert:
Press recall
| |
The alert cannot be cancelled
| |
Select another mode on MCP
| |
Press either pilots BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT Light, or correct the flight path back to the glide slope
|
Question 150 |
Pulling an engine FIRE WARNING switch up:
closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve | |
automatically discharges the fire extinguisher if fire is detected | |
closes the spar fuel shutoff valve; the fuel cutoff lever has to be moved to cutoff to close the engine fuel shutoff valve | |
closes the engine fuel shutoff valve; the fuel cutoff lever has to be moved to cutoff to close the spar fuel shutoff valve |
Question 151 |
What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE Switch is in AUTO?
The isolation valve is always open
| |
The isolation valve automatically modulates between open and closed, depending on pneumatic load
| |
The isolation valve is always closed
| |
Open when any Engine Bleed Air Switch or Air Conditioning Pack Switch is positioned OFF
|
Question 152 |
What is the maximum airspeed limit according MEL, when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative for window nr 4?
280 KIAS | |
250 KIAS | |
250 KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL | |
280 KIAS below 10,000 MSL |
Question 153 |
Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch to STANDBY:
requires the BAT switch to be on | |
requires AC power | |
requires the door to be open | |
does not require the BAT switch to be on |
Question 154 |
What happens when the WING- BODY OVHT TEST Switch is pressed?
The amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights illuminate
| |
The amber DUCT OVERHEAT Lights illuminate
| |
The amber BLEED TRIP OFF lights illuminate
| |
The amber PACK TRIP OFF lights illuminate
|
Question 155 |
There are CDS fuel alerts indications for:
Fuel quantity low in main tank, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel flow difference between engines
| |
Any fuel pump producing low or no pressure with the pump switch on, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks
| |
Fuel quantity low in main tank, both center tank fuel pumps producing low or no pressure with fuel in center tank, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks
| |
Fuel quantity low in center or main tank, either center tank fuel pump producing low or no pressure with fuel in center tank, excessive fuel flow difference between engines.
|
Question 156 |
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
10 | |
16 | |
4 | |
6 |
Question 157 |
The elevator control column override mechanism allows:
Forces from either control column to be transferred to the stabiliser
| |
The control columns to be physically separated in the event of an elevator jam
| |
The elevator feel and centering unit to transfer proper aerodynamic forces to the control columns
| |
The elevator feel and centering unit to transfer the source of power for elevator actuators to hydraulic systems A or B, depending upon which is producing higher pressure
|
Question 158 |
The Ground Proximity Warning System Test:
Can be performed only on the ground
| |
Can be performed only above 1,000 Radio Altitude
| |
Can be performed any time
| |
Is inhibited from lift-off to 1,000 feet Radio Altitude
|
Question 159 |
If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed:
Never. It can only be displayed manually with the MAIN PANEL DU selectors
| |
On the inboard display unit
| |
On the ENGINE SECONDARY display
| |
On the ENGINE PRIMARY display
|
Question 160 |
How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered?
They are AC activated and pneumatically operated
| |
They are pneumatically activated and DC operated
| |
They are DC activated and pneumatically operated
| |
They are pneumatically activated and AC operated
|
Question 161 |
What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Light indicate?
Low fuel pressure in the affected tank
| |
Low fuel pump input pressure
| |
Low pressure in the fuel manifold
| |
Low fuel pump output pressure
|
Question 162 |
Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate:
Terrain more than 2,000 ft above airplane altitude
| |
Terrain more than 2,000 ft above Radio altitude
| |
Terrain 500 ft below (250 with gear down) to 2,000 ft above airplane altitude
| |
Terrain 2,000 ft below to 55 ft above (250 with gear down) airplane altitude
|
Question 163 |
During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the IRS Mode Selectors are normally positioned to:
NAV | |
First NAV then ATT after 30 seconds | |
ALIGN | |
ATT |
Question 164 |
During normal operation with the OVHT DET Switch in NORMAL, an alert is initiated if:
Only FIRE can be detected
| |
Loop A is sensing a FIRE or OVHT
| |
Loop B is sensing a FIRE or OVHT
| |
Both loop A and B is sensing a FIRE or OVHT
|
Question 165 |
Which is the correct mode on the FMA? Condition: After takeoff, A/P engaged, before flaps up. (Thrust: Roll: Pitch)
N1 : LNAV : MCP SPD | |
N1 : LNAV : FMC SPD | |
ARM : HDG SELECT : VNAV PTH | |
THR HLD : HDG SELECT : MCP SPD |
Question 166 |
With fuel in the center and main tanks, both engines operating and all fuel pump switches ON, fuel from which tank(s) is used first?
No 2 main tank
| |
Center tank
| |
Not main tank
| |
Both main tanks
|
Question 167 |
After a normal take-off, what pitch command can you expect from the F/D?
V2 + 15 | |
V2 + 10 | |
V2 + 20 | |
V2 |
Question 168 |
Placing the TEST Switch, on fire protection panel to FAULT/INOP position tests:
The cargo extinguishing circuits
| |
The fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU
| |
The squib continuity
| |
Both engines overheat detectors |
Question 169 |
The amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do?
Nothing, this is normal condition before engine start
| |
Shutdown the APU | |
Do not start the engines | |
Use a pneumatic ground cart for starting engines |
Question 170 |
The cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to:
Provide more power to the AC standby bus
| |
Ensure that the standby DC bus is powered
| |
Provide more power to DC bus 1
| |
Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers
|
Question 171 |
In the event of an elevator jam, an override mechanism allows:
Apply force against the jam will break out only the captains control column
| |
The elevator feel and centring unit to transfer proper aerodynamic forces to the control column
| |
Lighter than normal control forces to be used for take off and landing
| |
The control columns to be physically separated
|
Question 172 |
When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle is:
15 degrees or less
| |
8 degrees or less
| |
6 degrees or less
| |
10 degrees or less
|
Question 173 |
During a normal engine start:
Only oil pressure and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD | |
Only round dials are visible for engine indications prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD
| |
The EEC is not powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater than 15% N2
| |
Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD
|
Question 174 |
The landing gear indicator lights found on the center panel will illuminate red when:
All landing gear are DN, and the gear handle in OFF position
| |
One of the 6 green lights are faulty
| |
All landing gear are UP, and the gear handle in OFF position
| |
There are no red lights
|
Question 175 |
The accessory gearboxes receive drive from:
ENG HYD Pumps | |
N2 Rotor | |
IDG | |
N1 Rotor |
Question 176 |
Where do you read the flight crew oxygen pressure?
On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel
| |
At the oxygen cylinder
| |
At each crew station
| |
At the flight crew oxygen shutoff valve
|
Question 177 |
Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated
Elevator pitot probes
| |
Static ports | |
Aux pitot | |
TAT probe |
Question 178 |
During cruise you note both center tank fuel pumps have failed as indicated by the illumination of both center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights. You still have 320 kg of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. You will see:
A LOW indication on the CDS
| |
A pump LOW PRESSURE indication on the CDS
| |
A CONFIG indication on the CDS
| |
There will be no indication on CDS
|
Question 179 |
Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
MAINT | |
LOW OIL PRESSURE
| |
OVERSPEED | |
FAULT |
Question 180 |
An amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is an indication of:
The standby altimeter has failed
| |
The Captains and First Officers altitude indications differ more than 50 feet for more than 5 seconds
| |
The Captains and First Officers altitude indications differ more than 200 feet for more than 5 seconds
| |
There is a difference of more than 10 HP between the selected QNHs
|
Question 181 |
The Look-Ahead Terrain alerting system will show for terrain:
Within 2000 feet barometric altitude
| |
Within 2000 feet RA
| |
Below 1000 feet barometric altitude
| |
Above 1000 feet RA
|
Question 182 |
The minimum equipment requirement for RA's to be generated is:
The other aircraft has a Mode C transponder | |
The other aircraft has a Mode S transponder | |
The other aircraft has ADS-B | |
The other aircraft is visible on primary radar |
Question 183 |
During primary charge cycle operation, battery voltage can be as high as:
40 volts | |
115 volts | |
30 volts | |
400 volts |
Question 184 |
Autopilot trim and main stabiliser trim use:
Hydraulic trim motor from hydraulic system A
| |
Single electric trim motor
| |
Hydraulic trim motor from hydraulic system B
| |
Separate electric trim motors
|
Question 185 |
If a landing is made with RTO selected:
Automatic braking occurs at the MAX level
| |
Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level
| |
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 minutes after touchdown
| |
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown
|
Question 186 |
The Cockpit Voice Recorder uses four independent channels to record flight deck audio for a maximum of:
60 minutes | |
180 minutes | |
90 minutes | |
120 minutes |
Question 187 |
While making a no engine bleed air take off and an engine failure occurs, when should the bleed air switches be positioned to ON?
Prior to 400 feet above ground
| |
After passing 2000 feet AGL
| |
After isolation valve switch switch is placed to AUTO
| |
Reaching 1500 feet AGL or until obstacle clearance height is reached
|
Question 188 |
After lift-off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until:
400 feet RA | |
400 feet RA or 18 seconds after takeoff | |
800 feet RA
| |
800 feet RA or 18 seconds after takeoff
|
Question 189 |
A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator in the PFD indicates:
actual vertical speed
| |
selected vertical speed on the MCP panel with V/S pitch mode selected
| |
indicates vertical speed in VNAV mode
| |
electrical power loss to the indicator
|
Question 190 |
Pulling the engine fire warning switch up:
Closes the spar fuel shutoff valve. The engine fuel shutoff valve must be closed using the engine start lever
| |
Closes the engine fuel shutoff valve. The spar fuel shutoff valve must be closed using the engine start lever
| |
Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve
| |
Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve if the battery switch is OFF
|
Question 191 |
With the Captains ACP is operating in degraded mode, at that station:
Altitude alert, GPWS and Windshear audio warnings are not heard | |
The Captain can transmit on VHF2 | |
PA functions are still available | |
The flight interphone is still available |
Question 192 |
Refer to the Cabin/Flight Altitude placard. At a cruise altitude FL290, the cabin altitude should read:
Cannot be determined from this placard
| |
Approximately 6000 feet
| |
A pressure differential of 50 psi
| |
Slightly less than FL220
|
Question 193 |
Switching the CAB/UTIL switch OFF removes all 115v AC from the galley busses and:
the emergency exit lighting | |
the overhead panel lights | |
left and right recirculation fans | |
the left pack |
Question 194 |
If the FAULT Light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:
A failure of a symbol generator
| |
That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal
| |
A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV mode has been detected
| |
An entry of an invalid present position
|
Question 195 |
What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
The Hot Battery Bus
| |
The DC Standby Bus
| |
The AC Standby Bus
| |
The Battery Bus
|
Question 196 |
VNAV is terminated by:
LOC capture
| |
selecting HDG SEL
| |
selecting a different pitch mode
| |
selecting LNAV
|
Question 197 |
Electrical power to start the APU comes from:
Either the AC or DC standby bus
| |
Battery power or either AC transfer bus
| |
The battery bus or the DC bus 2
| |
The No 1 transfer bus if available. If AC power is not available, battery power is used
|
Question 198 |
An Amber PACK light illumination during Master Caution recall, that extinguishes when master caution is reset, indicates:
Failure of both standby pack controllers
| |
Failure of either primary or standby pack controller
| |
Failure of either left or right standby controller
| |
Failure of the zone temp controller
|
Question 199 |
During VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails:
VNAV operation is not possible
| |
The pilots enter and periodically update manually calculated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page in order to keep gross weight and performance data accurate
| |
VNAV disengages
| |
The scratchpad message: CHECK FMC FUEL Quantity is displayed
|
Question 200 |
The APU starts, operates and can supply electrical power alone up to:
14,000 ft | |
37,000 ft | |
25,000 ft | |
41,000 ft |
Question 201 |
The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked:
With flaps set to 30, the horn can be silenced
| |
There is no horn in the landing gear configuration system
| |
With flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at a high power setting (above 34 degrees)
| |
With flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at low power setting (below 34 degrees)
|
Question 202 |
The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments, it represents with range greater than 20 NMs:
Predicts position at the end of 10, 20 and 30 second intervals
| |
Predicts position at the end of 20, 40 and 60 second intervals
| |
Predicts position at the end of 30, 60 and 90 second intervals
| |
Predicts position at the end of 60, 90 and 120 second intervals
|
Question 203 |
An amber ROLL displayed in the lower portion of the altitude indicator on the PFD means:
The airplane is experiencing an uncommented roll
| |
No flight director or autopilot mode engaged
| |
The airplane has exceeded 36 degrees of bank
| |
The captains and first officers roll angle display differ by more than 5 degrees
|
Question 204 |
When is the ENGINE ANTI-ICE turned on if icing condition exists on the ground?
During taxi out
| |
Before engine start
| |
As part of the after start checks
| |
When starting the takeoff roll
|
Question 205 |
The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground:
Yes, together with IRS test
| |
Yes | |
No
| |
Yes, with Flaps extended only
|
Question 206 |
If GROSS WT is not available from the FMC, the APPROACH REF page will be:
Flashing | |
Box prompts | |
Dashes | |
Blank |
Question 207 |
After the loss of all generators, full charged batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of:
5 minutes | |
60 minutes | |
90 minutes | |
30 minutes |
Question 208 |
Landing auto brake setting may be selected after touchdown:
After decelerating through 30 knots groundspeed
| |
However, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and auto break application will not occur
| |
Auto break action will occur only after both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE
| |
Prior to decelerating through 30 knots groundspeed
|
Question 209 |
One basic principle of operation for the 737 electrical system is:
All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System
| |
An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source
| |
There is paralleling of AC power sources
| |
There is no paralleling of the AC power sources
|
Question 210 |
The power source for Fire Extinguishing is:
the Switched Battery Bus | |
none of the other answers | |
the Hot Battery Bus
| |
Transfer Bus No 1
|
Question 211 |
When does the RAD ALT display a digital readout?
Below 1000ft AGL | |
Below 2500ft AGL | |
Below 1500ft AGL | |
Between 2500ft AGL and 1000ft AGL |
Question 212 |
Engine bleed air is obtained from:
5th and 9th stage of the compressor section
| |
5th and 8th stage of the compressor section
| |
4th and 8th stage of the compressor section
| |
4th and 9th stage of the compressor section
|
Question 213 |
Activated at 14,000 feet the passenger oxygen masks drop down from the stowage:
Pulling one mask down will only activate one mask in the unit
| |
Pulling down one mask will cause all masks to come down and generate 100% oxygen throughout the airplane | |
All masks start generating oxygen
| |
Pulling one mask down will activate all masks in that unit
|
Question 214 |
The Standby Hydraulic System powers the:
Inboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers
| |
Alternate brakes, rudder and thrust reversers
| |
Outboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers
| |
Leading edge devices, rudder and thrust reversers
|
Question 215 |
To see both left and right GPS position relative to the FMC position you select:
POS INIT page 1/3
| |
POS SHIFT page 3/3
| |
POS REF page 1/3
| |
POS REF page 2/3
|
Question 215 Explanation:
See GPS section (FCOM 2 11.20.2)
Question 216 |
The TR Unit light will illuminate in flight if:
TR3 fails | |
TR1 fails | |
TR2 fails | |
DC bus 2 fails
|
Question 217 |
Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position?
Forward thrust position
| |
Maximum thrust position
| |
Idle thrust position
| |
Any position
|
Question 218 |
TCAS TA Only mode is enabled automatically:
Above 1000ft when TA/RA mode is selected | |
Below 1000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected | |
Below 1000ft RA when the TXPDR is to ALT OFF | |
During a high altitude descent |
Question 219 |
When the EEC is not powered, following engine indications are displayed directly from the engine sensors:
Fuel flow and oil pressure
| |
Oil temperature, pressure and quantity indications
| |
Oil temperature and engine vibration
| |
Oil quantity and engine vibration
|
Question 220 |
The TCAS symbol for proximity traffic is:
A white solid diamond | |
A red square | |
An amber circle | |
A hollow white diamond |
Question 221 |
Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE light indicates:
The respective cowl anti-ice valve is in transit
| |
An over pressure condition
| |
An over temperature or over pressure condition
| |
The respective cowl anti-ice valve is open
|
Question 222 |
During alternate brake operation, the following protection is provided:
Skid, locked wheel and hydraulic plane only
| |
None of the above
| |
Skid and hydraulic plane only
| |
Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane
|
Question 223 |
A TCAS Resolution Advisory is generated when:
the conflicting aircraft is 25 seconds from point of closest approach | |
the conflicting aircraft is 45 seconds from point of closest approach | |
the conflicting aircraft is likely to collide with you | |
the conflicting aircraft is 1000ft above you |
Question 224 |
The window heat PWR TEST:
Provides a confidence test | |
Must be tested before each flight | |
Also tests the overheat protection system | |
Can be used if all green lights are on |
Question 225 |
Starter cutout speed is:
Approximately 56% N2
| |
Approximately 50% N2
| |
46% N2
| |
25% N2
|
Question 226 |
During a dual channel A/P ILS approach, at which altitude (AGL) should the FLARE mode engage?
300 feet | |
200 feet | |
150 feet | |
50 feet |
Question 227 |
Mach trim system provides speed stability at airspeeds above:
Mach .455 | |
Mach .505 | |
Mach .555 | |
Mach .615 |
Question 228 |
What does LRC on the FMC CRZ page mean?
Low Route Climb
| |
Low Route Cruise
| |
Lost Radio Contact
| |
Long Range Cruise
|
Question 229 |
For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/Os on the ground is?
400 ft | |
50 ft | |
100 ft | |
75 ft |
Question 230 |
Which controls operate the nose wheel steering system?
The steering wheel and the rudder pedals (on the ground)
| |
The control wheel
| |
The thrust levers
| |
The control column
|
Question 231 |
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within:
4.6m of the nose | |
7.4m of the nose | |
5.6m of the wing tip | |
7.4m of the wing tip |
Question 232 |
When the aircraft batteries is the only source of power:
The Captains inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged
| |
The Captains inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged and the First Officers inboard and outboard displays operate for a minimum of 5 minutes
| |
The Captains inboard and the First Officers inboard and outboard displays are inoperative
| |
Both the Captains and First Officers PFD/ND displays remain operative but only DEU No 1 is powered until the battery is discharged
|
Question 233 |
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is shown in the right window.
Right window displays wind speed
| |
Right window displays minutes remaining until alignment is complete
| |
Right window display true track
| |
Right window displays ground speed
|
Question 234 |
If the APU is the only source of electrical power:
In flight, the APU attempts to carry the full electrical load
| |
On the ground, the main busses are shed first if an overload condition is sensed
| |
On the ground, the galley busses are automatically shed
| |
In flight, the galley busses are automatically shed |
Question 235 |
The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) produces following flight data:
Attitude and speed only
| |
Position and speed only
| |
Position, attitude, altitude and speed
| |
Altitude and speed only
|
Question 236 |
The blue APU GEN BUS light will illuminate:
Whenever the APU is supplying power to a main bus but not the associated transfer bus
| |
When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC transfer bus
| |
Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No 1
| |
Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No 2
|
Question 237 |
L NAV will automatically disengage:
Upon glidescope capture
| |
When HDG SEL is disengaged
| |
When VNAV is engaged
| |
Reaching a route discontinuity
|
Question 238 |
Normally, N1 limits and target N1 values are provided to the A/T by the:
A/T computer | |
FCCs | |
Flight Management Computer (FMC) | |
IRUs
|
Question 239 |
If spoilers became jammed:
The first officer's control wheel operates the ailerons | |
The captain's control wheel will also become jammed | |
The captain's control wheel operates the ailerons | |
The first officer's control wheel operates the spoilers through another cable |
Question 240 |
The amber Standby Hydraulic System LOW PRESSURE Light is armed:
Only when the ALTERNATE FLAPS Switch is moved to ARM
| |
Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated
| |
At all times
| |
Only when either FLT CONTROL Switch is moved to STBY RUD
|
Question 241 |
With the AUTO BRAKE select switch at RTO, autobraking is initiated when:
Wheel speed 90 knots or more and thrust levers at IDLE
| |
Automatically when thrust levers are set to IDLE
| |
Wheel speed 60 knots or less and thrust levers at IDLE
| |
AUTO BRAKE ARM light on, wheel speed 90 knots or more and thrust levers at IDLE
|
Question 242 |
At what cabin altitude is the passenger oxygen system automatically activated?
12,500 ft | |
10,000 ft | |
11,000ft | |
14,000 ft |
Question 243 |
Stabiliser trim override switch:
Bypasses the main electric and auto pilot cut out switches on the centre pedestal
| |
Overrides the main electric switch
| |
Isolates the stabiliser trim motor
| |
Bypasses the control column activated stab trim cut out switches to restore power to stab trim switches
|
Question 244 |
Cruising at FL370. The motorised Overboard Exhaust valve will open in flight if:
Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is OFF
| |
Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF
| |
Both pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is ON
| |
Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is ON
|
Question 245 |
Illumination of the GEN OFF BUS light indicates:
The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus
| |
The associated generator bus is not powered
| |
The associated transfer bus is not powered
| |
The IDG is not supplying power to its associated transfer bus
|
Question 246 |
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during an ILS dual channel approach:
50 feet RA | |
Will not disengage | |
350 feet RA | |
500 feet RA |
Question 247 |
On which CDU page is the ground speed displayed?
PROGRESS page 1 | |
PROGRESS page 2 | |
POS REF page 2 | |
CRUISE |
Question 248 |
Some of the indications for an engine fire warning are: MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET annunciator lights, ENG OVERHEAT light, Master FIRE WARN lights and the red fire switch light. There is one more indication?
A FAULT light illuminates
| |
A red ENG OVERHEAT light illuminates
| |
The APU DET INOP light illuminates
| |
The fire warning bell rings
|
Question 249 |
If wheel spinup is not detected on landing with the speed brake ARMED the flight spoilers will deploy automatically:
Only when the right main landing gear strut compresses
| |
When the ground spoilers deploy
| |
Flight spoilers do not deploy on landing, only ground spoilers deploy
| |
When the air/ground system senses the ground mode (any strut compresses)
|
Question 250 |
If an engine fails during flight:
Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all subsequent performance predictions are blanked
| |
The ENGINE OUT page cannot be executed because engine out information is informative only
| |
VNAV immediately disengages and cannot be re-engaged
| |
Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all performance data must be re-entered before VNAV can be re-engaged
|
Question 251 |
During engine start the maximum time allowance for EGT indication after start lever is moved to idle is:
10 seconds
| |
20 seconds
| |
15 seconds
| |
Unit starter cut out
|
Question 251 Explanation:
See section ENGINE START PROCEDURE section - SOP (FCOM 1 p.73)
Question 252 |
In flight with both PACK switches in HIGH:
the left RECIRC fan will not operate | |
the right RECIRC fan will not operate | |
both RECIRC fans will operate | |
both RECIRC fans will not operate |
Question 253 |
The operation of the over-wing emergency exits depends on:
engine speed, thrust position, air/ground sensors | |
engine speed, thrust position | |
engine speed, thrust position, air/ground sensors, door status, DC power | |
engine speed, thrust position, air/ground sensors, door status |
Question 254 |
The Captain observes the word ROLL displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during takeoff. This means:
No F/D or autopilot roll mode has been engaged
| |
The Captains and First Officers roll angle displays differ by 5 degrees or more
| |
The aircraft has exceeded 40 degrees of bank
| |
The Captains roll attitude is more than 3 degrees in error
|
Question 255 |
There is a second set of landing gear indicator lights on the aft overhead panel. These lights:
Illuminate red when the relating landing gear is not down and either thrust lever is retarded to idle at a radio altitude of 800 feet or less
| |
Illuminate green when the landing gear is in agreement with the landing gear lever
| |
Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and locked and the gear handle is down | |
Are a redundant but separate set of landing gear indicator circuits and green lights
|
Question 256 |
The flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector rotated to the EMERGENCY position:
supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at cabin altitudes above 4000 feet
| |
supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at cabin altitudes above 6000 feet
| |
supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at cabin altitudes above 8000 feet
| |
supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes
|
Question 257 |
The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page is
Wing tank fuel only
| |
Center tank fuel only
| |
Total fuel onboard, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system
| |
Total fuel used since engine start, based on fuel flow inputs to the FMC
|
Question 258 |
What systems need pneumatic power for operation?
Wing, Anti-ice, APU, engine starting only
| |
Air conditioning/Pressurisation, Wing, Anti-ice, APU only
| |
Engine starting, air conditioning/Pressurisation, wing and engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurisation and TAT probe
| |
APU, engine starting, Air conditioning/Pressurisation only
|
Question 259 |
What happens to the digital readout of the radio alt when descending below minimums?
The dial and numbers of the radio altimeter flash green for 5 seconds | |
The dial and numbers of the radio altimeter flash amber for 5 seconds | |
The dial and pointer of the radio altimeter flash amber for 3 seconds | |
The dial and pointer of the radio altimeter flash green for 5 seconds |
Question 260 |
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go around, what is the correct FMA announciation? (Thrust : Roll : Pitch)
N1 : : TO/GA | |
N1 : LNAV : TO/GA | |
GA : : TO/GA | |
GA : HDG SEL : MCP SPD |
Question 261 |
Fire extinguishers provide a means of extinguishing of the engine, APU, cargo, wheel well and lavatory fires:
Only engine fire and lavatory fires
| |
Only engine fire, cargo, APU fire and lavatory fires
| |
Only engine fire and wheel well fire
| |
Only engine fire and cargo
|
Question 262 |
Manual IRS entries of present position or magnetic heading are normally accomplished on the:
POS SHIFT page 3/3
| |
POS SHIFT page 1/3
| |
POS SHIFT page 2/3
| |
POS INIT page or the ISDU
|
Question 263 |
What is the position of the Engine Bleed Air Switches during the secure scan flow on the parking checklist:
ON | |
HIGH | |
OFF | |
AUTO |
Question 264 |
The aircraft is on the ground and the Flight Recorder Switch is in NORMAL:
The Flight Recorder operates when electrical power is available and with engines operating
| |
The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available and start switch in GROUND position
| |
The Flight Recorder operates whenever the Battery Switch is ON
| |
The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available |
Question 265 |
The centre tank scavenge jet pump operates when:
Both centre tank fuel pump switches are turned off
| |
Either engine is operating
| |
The centre fuel tank is about ¾ full
| |
The No 1 main fuel tank is about ½ full
|
Question 266 |
The AC Standby Bus is powered by:
The AC Transfer Bus No 2 under normal conditions
| |
The Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions
| |
The AC Transfer Bus No 1 under normal conditions
| |
The Battery through the Static Inverter with a failure of one engine driven generators
|
Question 267 |
ZONE TEMP amber light illumination for CONT CAB indicates:
Both a duct temperature overheat, or a failure of both temperature controllers.
| |
Failure of both flight deck primary and standby temperature controller
| |
An overtemp in the control cabin zone
| |
A duct temperature overheat |
Question 268 |
In-flight, two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for the No 1 tank illuminate. What happens to the No 1 engine?
It will shut down due to fuel starvation
| |
It receives fuel from the No 1 tank through the tank fuel tank bypass valve
| |
It continues to operate due to the metering of fuel by the fuel control unit
| |
It receives fuel from the No 2 tank automatically
|
Question 269 |
During VNAV PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT means:
The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive N1
| |
VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15kts
| |
VNAV has disengaged at Vmo
| |
VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than 10kts
|
Question 270 |
Illumination of amber FAULT light with the overheat detector switch in NORMAL indicates:
One of the detector loops for an engine has failed
| |
One detector loop for each engine has failed
| |
There is a fault in APU engines for cargo hold detector loops
| |
Both detector loops for an engine have failed
|
Question 271 |
The number of LE slats located on each wing are:
6 | |
4 | |
3 | |
5 |
Question 272 |
After completing the FMC CDU pre-flight action, you look at the POS INIT page again. The SET IRS POS line is missing. What is required?
The alignment was not performed Cycle the IRSs to OFF and start a new alignment, then re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG
| |
Re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG into the FMC
| |
Return to ALIGN, then NAV and enter the PPOS LAT/LONG into the left or right IRS unit
| |
Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRSs have entered the NAV mode
|
Question 273 |
An amber Display Source Annunciation below the speed tape indicates:
A single EFIS control panel has been selected as the source for all six DUs
| |
The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and is unreliable
| |
A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to all six display units
| |
A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred
|
Question 274 |
Illumination of amber AUTO SLAT FAIL light that can be reset, during recall indicates:
Failure of a single stall management yaw damper (SMYD) computer
| |
Failure of both AUTO SLAT systems
| |
Failure of both stall management (SMYD) computers
| |
Failure of single AUTO SLAT system
|
Question 275 |
Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?
Transfer bus 1
| |
AC ground service bus 1
| |
Transfer bus 2
| |
AC ground service bus 2
|
Question 276 |
An auto relight protection is provided by EEC activating both igniters when a flameout is detected and there is a rapid uncommanded decrease in:
Fuel flow
| |
N1 or N1 below idle | |
EGT | |
N2 or N2 below idle
|
Question 277 |
The ISOLATION VALVE switch is to AUTO, both engine bleeds are ON and both pack switches are in AUTO. The isolation valve:
opens if there is AC power available | |
is fully open | |
is fully closed | |
is half open |
Question 278 |
In MANUAL pressurisation mode the outflow valve is driven by?
A motor supplied from DC bus 1
| |
A motor supplied from DC standby bus
| |
A motor supplied from DC bus 2
| |
Requires AC power from transfer bus 1
|
Question 279 |
During descent from altitude you need to decrease your airspeed by using your speed brakes. What is the limit of the SPEED BRAKE LEVER position?
ARMED | |
STOWED | |
GROUND DETENT | |
FLIGHT DETENT |
Question 280 |
Which systems use engine bleed air for operation?
APU, engine starting, Air con/Press, Hydraulic tanks | |
Wing Anti-ice, engine starting, water tank | |
Engine starting, Air con/Press, Wing and Engine anti-ice, Hydraulic and water tanks pressurization | |
Air con/press, Wing Anti-ice, Fuel tanks |
Question 281 |
The AUTO FAIL light on the cabin pressurization panel is illuminated alone:
This indicates that the alternate pressurization will automatically assume control | |
Indicates you should switch the pressurization to ALTN then back to AUTO to reset the system | |
This indicates a dual controller failure | |
Indicates the PAX OXY system has activated |
Question 282 |
The APU may be used as electrical and bleed source simultaneously up to:
17,000 ft | |
10,000 ft | |
25,000 ft | |
30,000 ft |
Question 283 |
Illumination of the PSEU fault light on the aft overhead panel will indicate:
It will only come ON during the light test
| |
A single PSEU fault in flight only
| |
FWD entry door not closed
| |
An overwing exit flight lock fails to disengage on the ground
|
Question 284 |
The amber LOW PRESSURE Light for System B Electric Hydraulic Pump illuminates. What are the other indications?
System B brake pressure drops to 100 psi
| |
System B hydraulic pressure drops to 1000 psi
| |
MASTER CAUTION, HYD annunciator and System Flight Control LOW PRESSURE Lights illuminate
| |
MASTER CAUTION and HYD annunciator lights illuminate
|
Question 285 |
Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:
no 1 main tank
| |
aux Tank
| |
no 2 main tank
| |
center Tank
|
Question 286 |
If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:
The FAULT light illuminates | |
The MAINT light illuminates | |
The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate | |
There is no light associated with this malfunction |
Question 287 |
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
Standby system | |
System A for engine No 1 and system B for engine No 2 | |
System B | |
System A
|
Question 288 |
A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and "-07". This indicates:
The traffic is above your position | |
The traffic is descending at a minimum of 500fpm | |
The traffic is another 737 | |
The traffic is below your position but is ascending at 700fpm |
Question 289 |
Logo lights are installed on:
Left wingtip | |
Right wingtip | |
Top of both horizontal stablizers | |
Both wingtips |
Question 290 |
The flap load relief system is operational at:
Flaps 15, 30 and 40 | |
Flaps 40 only | |
Flaps 30 and 40 | |
All flap settings
|
Question 291 |
The EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS Switch in the ARMED position:
Prevents activation of the emergency lights system
| |
Illuminates all interior and exterior emergency lights if there is a loss of electrical power on main bus No 2
| |
Illuminates all emergency lights, all the time
| |
Illuminates all interior and exterior emergency lights if there is a loss of electrical power on DC bus No 1, or AC power has been turned off
|
Question 292 |
The APU can supply both transfer busses:
on the ground or in the air
| |
in the air only
| |
on the ground only
| |
never
|
Question 293 |
While performing the APPROACH chekclist the PSEU light illuminates on recall, this indicates:
The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing
| |
A problem exists in the PSEU system because this light should be inhibited in flight
| |
A normal condition
| |
A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing system
|
Question 294 |
Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:
Adjusts FMC displayed Vref automatically when WING-ANTI ICE switch is ON | |
Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of flight | |
Have no influence on stick shaker logic | |
Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when WING-ANTI ICE switch is ON |
Question 295 |
The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set:
Independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel
| |
By using the DH selector knob on the forward instrument panel
| |
By entering the desired DH on the FMC CDU APPROACH REFERENCE page
| |
Automatically when APPROACH is selected on the MCP panel
|
Question 296 |
In flight if APU is the only source of electrical power:
No galley busses are automatically shed
| |
Only galley bus A and B are automatically shed
| |
Only galley bus C and D are automatically shed
| |
All galley busses are automatically shed
|
Question 297 |
What happens if you reject a takeoff at 100 knots with Autobrakes in RTO?
Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle
| |
Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected
| |
Automatic braking when thrust levers are retracted to idle
| |
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate
|
Question 298 |
The aural alert for excessive bank angle is:
BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE | |
WINGS LEVEL | |
BANK ANGLE | |
DON'T SINK |
Question 299 |
Once the thrust reverse auto-stow circuit is activated:
the thrust reversers remain in the uncommanded position | |
reverse thrust cannot be reselected | |
the isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position | |
the isolation valve closes and the control valve is held in the stow position |
Question 300 |
The blue APU MAINT light means that:
APU has to be shut down manually in flight or on ground
| |
APU shuts down automatically
| |
APU has to be shut down manually on ground only
| |
APU may be operated
|
Question 301 |
When a lavatory fire is detected:
the OVHT/DET light on the annunciator panel illuminates | |
the OVHT/DET light on the annunciator panel illuminates along with the MASTER CAUTION. The fire extinguisher operates automatically | |
the OVHT/DET light on the annunciator panel illuminates along with the MASTER CAUTION. The fire extinguisher is discharged by the cabin crew | |
the fire extinguisher operates automatically |
Question 302 |
How can you silence the Mach/airspeed warning in flight?
Press the Mach/airspeed warning test switch
| |
Press the Mach/airspeed warning reset switch
| |
Descend to a lower altitude
| |
Slow the aircraft speed to below Vmo/Mmo
|
Question 303 |
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot execute an ILS dual channel A/P approach?
800 feet
| |
1500 feet
| |
2000 feet
| |
500 feet
|
Question 304 |
The Takeoff Configuration Warning Horn sounds if:
Parking brake not set
| |
Trailing edge flaps in the 5 pos
| |
TOGA not pressed
| |
Stabiliser trim is not in the green band
|
Question 305 |
The brake pressure accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and:
Parking brake system
| |
Nose wheel steering system
| |
Landing gear system
| |
Flap system
|
Question 306 |
What is the maximum flap extension altitude?
10,000ft if below 250kts | |
20,000ft | |
10,000ft | |
15,000ft |
Question 307 |
Which of these is indicated by the hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
Maximum pressure 3500psi in amber | |
Minimum pressure 3000psi in white | |
Maximum pressure 3500psi in white | |
Minimum pressure 3000psi in amber |
Question 308 |
The 737-800 is powered by two:
Pratt Whitney JT9-7 engines
| |
CFM 56-3 engines
| |
Pratt Whitney JT9-3 engines
| |
CFM 56-7 engines
|
Question 309 |
All window heat is selected ON. The green window heat ON light for the Right Side Window extinguishes. The likely reason is:
system is at correct temperature | |
the window heat has not yet reached the required temperature | |
the window heat has failed | |
the window heat is taking power from another source |
Question 310 |
What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?
Start switch rotates to FLT, N1 rpm 17-20% and N2 rpm stabilized
| |
The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights extinguish with N1 rpm 56%
| |
The start switch automatically returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes
| |
An immediate increase in the N1 indication due to closure of the compressor bleed valves
|
Question 311 |
The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased:
Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight with parking brake ON
| |
Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight
| |
Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft on ground with parking brake ON
| |
Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft on ground with parking brake OFF
|
Question 312 |
What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?
System B
| |
System A
| |
Standby System
| |
Nose wheel steering accumulator
|
Question 313 |
In the PACK fail non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:
Reduce the workload on the other pack
| |
Reduce the air flow through the air mix valves
| |
Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack
| |
Reduce cabin air outflow
|
Question 314 |
The maximum differential pressure is:
8.45 psi | |
8.65 psi | |
9.10 psi | |
7.90 psi |
Question 315 |
Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?
The aileron trim never directly affects the position of the control wheel | |
The amount of trim is always displayed on the scale, regardless of the autopilot state | |
If the autopilot is engaged, the amount of trim is not indicated on the scale | |
If the autopilot is engaged, any changes in trim will directly affect the control wheel position |
Question 316 |
The wing-span of the 737-800 is:
37.95m | |
37.59m | |
39.75m | |
35.79m |
Question 317 |
To see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude you select:
POS REF page 3/3
| |
POS REF page 2/3
| |
POS REF page 1/3
| |
PROG page 3/3
|
Question 318 |
The aircraft is not certified for operations:
Above 78N or below 78S
| |
The aircraft is certified for operations at all latitudes
| |
Above 82N or below 82S
| |
Above 73N or below 60S
|
Question 319 |
What will occur if the aircraft pitch altitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indication (PLI) on the PFD during slow speed manoeuvring?
The aircraft will experience initial stall buffet
| |
The aircraft stalls
| |
The stick nudger pushes the control column forward
| |
The stick shaker warning activates
|
Question 320 |
Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered from:
DC standby bus
| |
AC standby bus
| |
Hot battery bus
| |
DC bus 1 and DC bus 2
|
Question 321 |
Pushing cargo fire TEST switch:
Test the fwd and aft cargo fire loops only
| |
Test the fwd and aft cargo fire loops only and continuity of the extinguisher bottle squib circuit
| |
Only test the lamps on the cargo fire panel
| |
Test the continuity of the extinguisher bottle squib circuit only
|
Question 322 |
If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overridden with control column pressure, which of the following occurs?
LNAV disengages | |
LEVEL CHANGE automatically engages | |
The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released within 250 feet of selected altitude | |
The autopilot disengages |
Question 323 |
A fast realignment should be complete in:
10 minutes | |
5 minutes | |
1 minute | |
30 seconds |
Question 324 |
An engine-driven hydraulic pump supplies approximately ___ times the fluid volume of an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
4 | |
2 | |
5 | |
10 |
Question 325 |
The ram air system deflector doors:
Extend on the ground only | |
Prior to landing | |
Extend on the ground and during slow flight | |
During slow flight with the flaps extended |
Question 326 |
If all TEMPERATURE ZONE SELECTORS are positioned to OFF:
the left pack maintains 18 degrees, the right 24 | |
the packs turn off automatically | |
the left pack maintains 24 degrees, the right 18 degrees | |
the packs maintain the average temperature demanded by the coolest part of the cabin |
Question 327 |
What is one indication of a leak in the Standby Hydraulic System?
Decrease in System A quantity
| |
Illumination of the System A LOW PRESSURE Lights
| |
Decrease in System B quantity
| |
Illumination of the System B LOW PRESSURE Lights
|
Question 328 |
Warm air from the E&E bay is:
is recirculated into the E&E bay | |
is discharged overboard at all times | |
diffused to the lining of the forward cargo compartment in flight at high cabin differential pressures | |
is used to warm the captain's feet |
Question 329 |
Extending the airstairs using the exterior system:
is not possible | |
uses AC power | |
bypasses the door open requirement | |
bypasses the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits |
Question 330 |
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE NAV DATA base is expired and must be changed. Which will the RTE page look like after the NAV DATA base change?
Same, no action required
| |
Route discontinuity will be gone, everything else remain the same
| |
Black, requiring reloading
| |
The NAV DATA base cannot be changed after pre-flight
|
Question 331 |
The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of:
The autopilots (A/P) and the flight directors (F/D) only
| |
The flight directors (F/D) and the autothrottles (A/T) only
| |
The autothrottles (A/T) and the autopilots (A/P) only
| |
The autopilot flight directors (AFDS) and the autothrottles (A/T)
|
Question 332 |
The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning?
FUEL | |
OVERHEAD | |
AIR COND | |
OVHT/DET |
Question 333 |
Under speed limiting (flashing A) appears:
Minimum speed for current flap setting cannot be reached
| |
The highest of all the answers
| |
When the speed is less than 1.3 VS for current flap setting
| |
FMC speed or selected speed cannot be reached
|
Question 334 |
After normal engine start, what should be done if the DUAL BLEED light is illuminated:
Pack switch, affected side, OFF
| |
Isolation valve to close, bleed air switch(es) affected side off
| |
Engine start lever affected side to cut off
| |
Place the APU bleed switch to OFF
|
Question 335 |
During an impending hot start the flashing white box surrounding EGT digital read out resets:
When the start lever is moved to CUT OFF or engine reaches idle N2
| |
Engine reaches idle N1
| |
At starter cutout
| |
When the EGT is stabilized
|
Question 336 |
The EEC automatically selects approach idle in flight anytime:
Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for either engine
| |
The aircraft descends below 15,000 feet
| |
Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
| |
Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or FLT
|
Question 337 |
The cross bus tie relay:
Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (plus or minus 4 volts) as displayed on the AC voltmeter
| |
Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director approach
| |
Opens up if BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF
| |
Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 and 2 through a diode
|
Question 338 |
The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:
Captains pilot system fails
| |
Flaps are not up and a pressure imbalance between Hydraulic system B and Standby system is detected.
| |
Flaps are up and a pressure imbalance between Hydraulic Systems A and Standby system is detected.
| |
Flaps are up or down and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected between hydraulic system A and B or if one of the elevator pilot systems fails
|
Question 339 |
Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:
Trips the generator control relay and breaker, arms the ssociated extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve, closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door
| |
Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve
| |
Discharges the APU fire extinguisher
| |
Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and shuts down the APU
|
Question 340 |
The airspeed range for speed trim operation is:
158-300 KIAS | |
100 KIAS - Mach 0.5 | |
100 KIAS - Mach 0.6 | |
100-300 KIAS |
Question 340 Explanation:
See SPEED TRIM SYSTEM section (FCOM 2 9.20.8)
Question 341 |
For ground service, a ground service switch is placed:
On aft overhead panel on the Flight Deck
| |
On external receptacle on the right side of the aircraft exterior
| |
On aft attendants panel
| |
On forward attendants panel
|
Question 342 |
When using halon fire extinguishing in the flight deck:
Both crew must don oxygen masks and set 100% | |
Both crew must don oxygen masks and set EMER | |
PF must don oxygen and set to EMER | |
PF must don oxygen and set to 100% |
Question 343 |
An amber CDS FAULT in the left lower corner of PFD indicates:
A dispatchable CDS FAULT has occurred on the ground before staring second engine
| |
A dispatchable CDS fault (comes on 10 seconds after landing)
| |
A non-dispatchable fault has occurred after starting both engines
| |
A non-dispatchable fault has occurred on the ground before starting second engine
|
Question 344 |
The R ELEV PITOT Light is illuminated and PROBE HEAT switches are ON. What does this indicate?
System A hydraulic pressure is low | |
System B hydraulic pressure is low | |
The right elevator pitot is blocked | |
The right elevator pitot is not heated |
Question 345 |
Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed once below 2000 feet radio altitude for a automatic go-around from an ILS channel A/P approach and FLARE armed?
The autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1 | |
N1 mode is displayed on the FMA | |
The autopilot disengages | |
The autothrottle advances thrust levers to full go-around N1 |
Question 346 |
The thrust reverser may be deployed:
In flight with radio height less than 30 feet
| |
When the air/ground sensor is in the ground mode
| |
In flight when the thrust lever is at idle
| |
Always in flight with throttles at idle
|
Question 347 |
The engine fuel shutoff valve:
And the spar fuel shutoff valve require AC power to operate
| |
Is the only fuel shutoff with an associated blue light on the forward overhead fuel panel
| |
Is controlled by both the Engine Fire Warning switch and the Engine Start Lever, however, the spar fuel shutoff valve is controlled only the Engine Start Lever
| |
And the spar fuel shutoff valve close when the respective Engine Start Lever is placed to CUTOFF
|
Question 348 |
When the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode:
All stations are available to all crew members
| |
First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF 2
| |
Captain can only transmit and receive on VHF 2
| |
Observer can only transmit on VHF 2
|
Question 349 |
If ON DC on left IRS mode selector unit comes ON steady it means:
The related IRS is operating on DC power from the switched hot battery bus
| |
The related IRS is operating on DC power from battery bus
| |
The related IRS is operating on DC power from the hot battery bus
| |
The related IRS is operating on DC power from the DC bus 1
|
Question 350 |
The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions?
Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL)
| |
Landing gear is up and locked with the LANDING GEAR lever UP or OFF
| |
Both; Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position, and Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL).
| |
Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position
|
Question 351 |
The BLEED TRIP OFF light:
Can be reset at any time
| |
Indicates a primary controller for the pack has failed
| |
Indicates excessive pack operating temperature
| |
Indicates excessive engine bleed air pressure or temperature
|
Question 352 |
In case of an engine overheat:
Both fire warning lights the related engine OVHT/DET system annunciator lights illuminate.
| |
Only the related ENGINE OVERHEAT light illuminates
| |
The Master caution OVHT/DET light will illuminate during Recall only
| |
Both master caution lights, the related ENGINE OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator lights illuminate
|
Question 353 |
Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has automatically closed?
Engine Bleed Air valve
| |
Modulating and Shutoff valve
| |
5th valve of the compression sector
| |
Isolation valve
|
Question 354 |
Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU:
on the ground or in the air | |
on the ground only | |
never | |
in the air only |
Question 355 |
When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF:
Automatic switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate power sources
| |
The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be extinguished
| |
The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be illuminated
| |
The Static Inverter provides 28 volt DC power to Transfer Bus No. 1
|
Question 356 |
If a crossbleed start is required during in flight starting, the X-BLEED START indication will be displayed above:
Above FF dial
| |
Above N1 dial
| |
Above N2 dial
| |
Above EGT dial
|
Question 357 |
Whilst on the ground with wing anti-ice selected ON, advancing the thrust levers for take-off will cause:
Both wing anti-ice valves to close and the WING ANTI-ICE switches to remain ON | |
Both wing anti-ice valves to close and the WING ANTI-ICE switches to change to OFF | |
Both wing anti-ice valves to open and the WING ANTI-ICE switches to remain ON | |
Both wing anti-ice valves to open and the WING ANTI-ICE switches change to OFF |
Question 358 |
The wing anti-ice system provides bleed air to:
The three inboard leading edge slats | |
All leading edge slats | |
Leading edge flaps and the three inboard leading edge slats | |
Leading edge flaps and all leading edge slats |
Question 359 |
On the FMC FIX INFO page the RAD/DIS FR indicates:
The radial and distance of your next abeam point
| |
The radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position
| |
The radial and distance of the destination field
| |
the radial and distance from the airplane to the fix, this is not updated as the airplane changes position
|
Question 360 |
Antenna switching from tail antenna to nose antenna occurs when:
LOC frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged | |
VOR frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged | |
VOR frequency is selected only | |
LOC frequency is selected only |
Question 361 |
The ALTERNATE FLAPS Master Switch selected to ARM:
Fully extends the LE Devices using Standby Hydraulic pressure
| |
Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS Master Switch, activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump, and closes the Trailing Edge Flaps Bypass valve
| |
Closes the Flight Spoiler Shutoff valve
| |
Activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump and pressurises the Standby Rudder Control Unit
|
Question 362 |
The flight crew oxygen may be as high as:
3000psi | |
1000psi | |
1850psi | |
3500psi |
Question 363 |
The End of Descent altitude on the PATH DES page is:
The field elevation
| |
The altitude restriction for the end of descent waypoint
| |
The airport reference point elevation
| |
The runway threshold elevation
|
Question 364 |
If a landing is made with RTO selected:
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 minutes after touchdown
| |
Automatic braking occurs at the MAX level
| |
Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level
| |
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown
|
Question 365 |
Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
Center tank check valves open at a higher differential than main tank check valves
| |
Main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE light illuminate and center tank pumps are turned OFF
| |
Centre tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps
| |
Center tank check valves open at a lower differential than main tank check valves
|
Question 366 |
With VNAV engaged, the AFDS pitch and A/T modes are commanded by the:
MCP | |
FCC | |
CWS | |
FMC |
Question 367 |
The flight spoilers will start to extend on the down going wing with a control wheel deflection at approximately:
15 degrees | |
20 degrees | |
5 degrees | |
10 degrees |
Question 368 |
Pulling the No 2 ENGINE FIRE SWITCH shuts off hydraulic fluid to the:
Electric pump in system A
| |
Engine driven pump in system A
| |
Electric pump in system B
| |
Engine driven pump in system B
|
Question 369 |
The wing ANTI-ICE:
Is used for de-icing or anti-icing when icing conditions exist
| |
Should be on during ground operation with temperature less than 15C and visible moisture
| |
Is required in the climb or cruise with SAT below -40
| |
Should only be used in flight
|
Question 370 |
Illumination of the GND POWER AVAILABLE light indicates:
The external power bus is powered by a ground power supply
| |
Ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards
| |
Ground power is connected however no aircraft power quality is measured
| |
The ground service bus is powered by a ground power supply
|
Question 371 |
If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:
The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate
| |
The MAINT light illuminates
| |
There is no light associated with this malfunction
| |
The FAULT light illuminates
|
Question 372 |
Galley busses are powered from:
The main busses
| |
The Battery bus
| |
The generator busses
| |
The AC transfer busses
|
Question 373 |
The Crossfeed valve must be:
Open for Takeoff
| |
Closed for Takeoff and Landing
| |
Closed for Cruise
| |
Open for Takeoff and Landing
|
Question 374 |
During V NAV PATH DESCENT and below the speed restriction altitude, the FMC alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT means:
VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC speed restriction by more than 15 knots
| |
VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC target speed by more than 10 knots
| |
VNAV has disengaged at Vmo
| |
The FMC has disengaged the auto throttles due to excessive N1
|
Question 375 |
The TRs (Transformer rectifier) converts:
115 volts AC to 28 volts AC
| |
115 volts DC to 28 volts
| |
115 volts DC to 28 volts AC
| |
115 volts AC to 28 volts DC
|
Question 376 |
Hydraulic pressure from system B will be used to retract the landing gear:
After a failure of the No 1 engine hydraulic pump with landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned up
| |
When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL switch is positioned ON
| |
When system A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned up
| |
After failure of the No 1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing lever is positioned up
|
Question 377 |
Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to On in flight:
Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON
| |
Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight
| |
Adjusts FMC displayed Vref automatically when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON
| |
Has no influence on stick shaker
|
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect.
There are 377 questions to complete.
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